I should make it clear that my last response and this one are not about the case at DTD, since we really have no idea what occurred, but about the more general discusssion.
This is not really the same thing at all. If it is "rape" to have sex with someone who is drunk because then the person cannot consent, then if both people are drunk, and neither forces the other in any other way (both consent as much as one can while impaired) essentially BOTH people have committed rape, and it should not be that only one gender is held accountable for that and the other is considered the victim.
A more accurate comparison would be that an adult having sex with a 13 year old would be committing statutory rape. Two 13 year olds who both "consent" and have sex with one another are not committing statutory rape--both are under age and equally unable to consent. (though, I think in some cases only the male does get convicted of this as well).
This does not mean that it is wise for two drunk people or two 13 year olds to have sex--but it means one person is not necessarily the victim when both are equally at the same disadvantage. I mean, that is kind what rape is, right, one party using some advantage (physical strength, being sober when the other is not, being in a position of authority over the other, etc) over the other to "force" (physically, or otherwise) someone into having sex when that is not what they would chose if the other person was not leveraging their advantage. If both parties are drunk, no one has an advantage on the sobriety thing.