SAHDad
DIS Veteran
- Joined
- Jan 15, 2009
- Messages
- 2,343
I was told once that when Americans do a Shakespeare production, they aren't supposed to do it with a British accent. They can keep their American accents. That made NO sense to me.If you are doing a British play, written by a Brit, previously performed in Britain, and is considered a classic, why wouldn't the American actors perform it with British accents, (or the accents of the characters,) to keep the play authentic???
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Because a modern British accent is likely quite wrong as well. Languages can drift over time (e.g. the Great Vowel Shift). Anyway, someone tried to see what Shakespeare possibly sounded like:
http://youtu.be/dWe1b9mjjkM
(Article is here.)
Regarding Latin and Greek - it has been a while, but I recall a Latin prof telling my class that we actually have a pretty good idea of what Latin might have sounded like, since several ancient scholars wrote essays or guides on (essentially) "How to speak like a proper Roman (for Barbarians)," and that a similar situation existed for Greek. It wouldn't be the correct accent, but there is a huge difference between how most people pronounce "veni, vidi, vici" and how it probably should be pronounced. (Hard v versus a more w sound, for example.)