Zippa D Doodah said:
I found the info below about Jehovah's Witnesses. I will still do some more reading, but it would seem like several sites I perused agreed that JWs believe Jesus was created, and not divine.
Zippa D Doodah-
Being one of Jehovahs Witness, I cant help but feel like Im being involved in a witch hunt. My apologies, if that is not your intention. If your intentions are to find out why we believe the way we do, I will be more than happy to answer you questions.
Since you attached a link about cults, please allow me to address the subject.
Are Jehovahs Witnesses a sect or a cult?
Some define
sect to mean a group that has broken away from an established religion. Others apply the term to a group that follows a particular human leader or teacher. The term is usually used in a derogatory way. Jehovahs Witnesses are not an offshoot of some church but include persons from all walks of life and from many religious backgrounds. We do not look to any human, but rather to
Jesus Christ, as our leader.
A
cult is a religion that is said to be unorthodox or that emphasizes devotion according to prescribed ritual. Many cults follow a living human leader, and often their adherents live in groups apart from the rest of society. The standard for what is orthodox, however, should be Gods Word, and Jehovahs Witnesses strictly adhere to the Bible. Their worship is a way of life, not a ritual devotion. They neither follow a human nor isolate themselves from the rest of society. They live and work in the midst of other people. So Jehovahs Witnesses are NOT a sect or a cult. For accurate information about Jehovahs Witnesses please go to the OFFICIAL website:
www.watchtower.org/
Zippa D Doodah, some of the material you quoted is true. For example: we do not believe in the Trinity, and we do not believe that God and Jesus are the same person. That is correct. The other information about Jehovahs Witnesses "adding words" that do not belong, is false. Notice these 3 points about
Colossians 1:15, 16 you brought up.
Does the Bible teach that all who are said to be part of the Trinity are eternal, none having a beginning?
Col. 1:15, 16, RS: He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth. In what sense is Jesus Christ the first-born of all creation?
(1) Some Trinitarians say that first-born here means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; thus Christ would be understood to be, not part of creation, but the most distinguished in relation to those who were created. If that is so, and if the Trinity doctrine is true, why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the firstborn of all creation? But the Bible applies this expression only to the Son. According to the customary meaning of firstborn, it indicates that Jesus is the eldest in Jehovahs family of sons.
(2) Before Colossians 1:15, the expression the firstborn of occurs upwards of 30 times in the Bible, and in each instance that it is applied to living creatures the same meaning appliesthe firstborn is part of the group. The firstborn of Israel is one of the sons of Israel; the firstborn of Pharaoh is one of Pharaohs family; the firstborn of beast are themselves animals. What, then, causes some to ascribe a different meaning to it at Colossians 1:15? Is it Bible usage or is it a belief to which they already hold and for which they seek proof?
(3) Does Colossians 1:16, 17 (RS) exclude Jesus from having been created, when it says in him all things were created . . . all things were created through him and for him? The Greek word here rendered all things is pan´ta, an inflected form of pas. At Luke 13:2, RS renders this all . . . other; JB reads any other; NE says anyone else. (See also Luke 21:29 in NE and Philippians 2:21 in JB.) In harmony with everything else that the Bible says regarding the Son, NW assigns the same meaning to pan´ta at Colossians 1:16, 17 so that it reads, in part, by means of him all other things were created . . . All other things have been created through him and for him. Thus he is shown to be a created being, part of the creation produced by God.
Zippa D Doodah, you also referred to John 1:1, stating that a doesnt belong. Please allow me to explain why we believe the way we do.
John 1:1, 2:
RS reads: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God. (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.
Which translation of John 1:1, 2 agrees with the context?
John 1:18 says: No one has ever seen God. Verse 14 clearly says that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory. Also, verses 1, 2 say that in the beginning he was with God. Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as the only true God; so, Jesus as a god merely reflects his Fathers divine qualities.Heb. 1:3.
Is the rendering a god consistent with the rules of Greek grammar?
Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, The Word was God. But not all agree. In his article Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1, Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos. He suggests: Perhaps the clause could be translated, the Word had the same nature as God. (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·os´ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, The Word was God, do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as a devil, and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as a prophet.
John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.
In harmony with the above, AT reads: the Word was divine; Mo, the Logos was divine; NTIV, the word was a god. In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: God of a sort the Word was. Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as a god is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as gods (Hebrew, elo·him´; Greek, the·oi´, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.
If a passage can grammatically be translated in more than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse, then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another imperfect human.
To all those who believe in the Trinity, I mean no disrespect. I do not wish to debate anyones religious beliefs. I personally felt the need to reply to what was asked about me and my faith and I also wanted to go along with SeaSpray who said:
"Jehovah's Witness IS a Christian religion. 