I don't think there has to be anything different, because I think Disney has an argument that they are not violating the statute.
Here is the argument: Disney is neither forbidding rentals, nor is it "
specifying or limiting the number of times unit owners are entitled to rent their units during a specified period". [Emphasis added.] We are allowed to rent, so they are not forbidden. There is no maximum specified number of times we may rent, so Disney does not violate that clause. There is no specified period of time during which rentals are limited, so Disney does not violate that clause.
The vague nature of
DVC's statements so far is helpful Disney here. There is no specific number or period. Instead, the limit is defined by
a pattern, and the statute does not appear to forbid that on its face. Even the old 20/year threshold doesn't rise to this, becase that was a specified limit on the
number of reservations, not a limit on the
number of rentals.
Let's take it even further, and assume that Disney is in direct violation of this statute. This is not a criminal statute, as far as I can tell, but a civil one. In other words, the primary mechanism of enforcement is by virtue of a suit brought by one or more Members. If Disney decides to go to the mattresses, this will be extraordinarily expensive, and it will also be uncertain.