If a DNA test indicates female, that person is female, regardless of what she 'wants' to be. And, she can still can herself whatever she chooses.
Hmm, where'd you do your specialization in intersex medicine, because the bolded statement is certainly not agreed upon medically/scientifically?
For instance, people with androgen insensitivity syndrome tend to have XY chromosomes, male gonads, female external genitalia, and a female gender identity. I have NEVER seen a legitimate medical/scientific source which declares that such people are really male simply because of their DNA (nor have I ever seen any piece of literature refer to these women as "he"). Do you know of one?
I agree with all of this. It's possible to be frustrated with the media for framing the story in a misleading manner without referring to the person who had the baby as a woman. As someone who knows a couple trans people, it can be a kick in the stomach to have people continue to refer to you by the gender that you felt so uncomfortable being.
I'm happy for the entire family, but still think the media is portraying the situation as more of a medical miracle than it actually is.
ITA. This is not the first time a transman has given birth. (Though as far as I know, it IS the first time that a person who according to the law is male has given birth. And I can see why *legally* that might be of some interest.)
In terms of medical stuff, though, there's nothing miraculous or even that interesting about it. One would think that in terms of medical interest, cases in which women with XY chromosomes go through pregnancy and childbirth would be of much more interest.
So he does want to be a woman then.
I don't see that wanting to be able to give birth to a baby (when that is quite possibly one's only way of becoming a parent) means that one wants to be a woman.
Suppose that doctors were trying out a new procedure in which they transplant a uterus (with embryo already implanted) into a man and then give him a c-section 9 months later to deliver the baby. And suppose there is a male-male gay couple who desperately wants to have a child but can't afford a surrogate and isn't legally allowed to adopt in their state. If one of the men chose to go through this procedure, we wouldn't understand that as "wanting to be a woman", right? So why is this man's choosing to keep his uterus in order to produce a child understood that way?