Why Intelligent Design Will Win

Watch out. He's put on his Wonder woman bracelets and is now using them to deflect any rational arguments!

Love the outfit sweetie.

Now about my buddy Chris. He's cute. AND he's a Christian too!
 
hokiefan33 said:
We speak for Jesus anytime we tell others about Him, anytime we teach in Sunday School or talk in church, or anytime we quote the Bible to someone. Would Jesus agree with what sodaseller is shoveling? I say, 100%, unequivocally, absolutely NOT. We can never know everything about Jesus, or His nature. But we can know what He wants for us, what He wants us to believe about Him, and about aspects of Christianity, by reading the Bible. And if people say things contrary to what the Bible teaches, then I can absolutely say that Jesus wouldn't agree.
For the best evidence of what Jesus would agree with (that we can understand), check out how He responded to those that acted like you do. Hint: Do you think his message was that the first century Palestine authorities were going too easy on sexual licentiousness, or that they were judging too harshly, misusing temporal authority? Now of course that raises a whole host of related theological issues, that of a Christian Community like Paul addressed. But even his letters were addressed to the separateness of the Christian Community, not to the bringing of the Kingdom through temporal power (now we're cooking), which is what He mainly railed against, and what ya'll usually attack us on, validly, I might add, though via an anachronistic caricature
 

BelleMcNally said:
I, for one, do. And as a Hebrew scholar I should tell you that, all through Genesis, a feminine form of the noun is used to describe the Creator.
Incorrect. To be sure, the noun used in the OT is actually not gender specific, and can be used to refer to male OR female, but not just male.

So, why throughout the NT (and in the OT as well, for that matter) is God referred to as the Father, or Him? I know the nouns used in the NT are male-specific? Did He change from neutral to male???

Please.
 
hokiefan33 said:
Clearly, Aidensmom, this does not mean that. And you know it. Of course, I'm sure you agree with most of what is being said, anyway.

Agree with what? This whole thread is people telling each other that they are wrong. :confused3

Do I agree with Intelligent Design? Mostly. I believe that God, and not a random occurrence, was the originator of the universe, and I believe creationism and evolution can co-exist. I do not believe that anything about God should be taught in a public school. If I want my child to learn about God outside of home and church, I will send him to a private school that I know teaches the same thing I believe.
 
godwarrior.jpg



"She's Not a Christian!!!!!!!"
 
BelleMcNally said:
There are more things in heaven and earth, Horatio,
Than are dreamt of in your philosophy.


I think it was a very pretty way of saying that claiming to fully comprehend the Divine as possessing NO contradictions does a disservice to religion. That the true burden and beauty of spirituality comes when people accept the charge to be completely merciful, even as they are completely faith-filled, even if they can't totally wrap their minds around how it's possible to do both.

And that SCRIPTURE (or rather, your interpretation of certain parts of the Christian scripture) isn't meant to be used like mathematics equation...

sodaseller, feel free to chime in if I'm wrong.
Dead on - better than I stated
 
hokiefan33 said:
Incorrect. To be sure, the noun used in the OT is actually not gender specific, and can be used to refer to male OR female, but not just male.

So, why throughout the NT (and in the OT as well, for that matter) is God referred to as the Father, or Him? I know the nouns used in the NT are male-specific? Did He change from neutral to male???

Please.

Wouldn't have anything to do with the fact that all the authors of the Bible were male, would it?

Are you arguing that God was human?
 
hokiefan33 said:
Incorrect. To be sure, the noun used in the OT is actually not gender specific, and can be used to refer to male OR female, but not just male.

So, why throughout the NT (and in the OT as well, for that matter) is God referred to as the Father, or Him? I know the nouns used in the NT are male-specific? Did He change from neutral to male???

Please.

The Bible was written in patriarchal times, hokie...
 
Bob Slydell said:
Wouldn't have anything to do with the fact that all the authors of the Bible were male, would it?

Are you arguing that God was human?


Interesting argument, isn't it Bob?
 
hokiefan33 said:
Wow. Have you ever even read a Bible?

Yes I have. Have you?
God is not human. How can something that is not human be assigned a sex? And if they are assigned a sex, why can't it be female? Because a misogynist says so? Still not understanding how assigning God a female gender is blasphemy.

I believe God, as an entity and not a human, has both male and female aspects.
 
Bob Slydell said:
Wouldn't have anything to do with the fact that all the authors of the Bible were male, would it?

Are you arguing that God was human?
Has nothing at all to do with that. Remember, the Bible was divinely inspired by God, according to the book of 1 Timothy (unless you've removed that book from your Bible, of course)

God is most certainly not human, but he is male by nature, and NOT female.
 
hokiefan33 said:
Incorrect. To be sure, the noun used in the OT is actually not gender specific, and can be used to refer to male OR female, but not just male.

So, why throughout the NT (and in the OT as well, for that matter) is God referred to as the Father, or Him? I know the nouns used in the NT are male-specific? Did He change from neutral to male???

Please.

Actually, it is correct. The noun itself is not Gender specific, but its modifiers are. We could also talk about verb forms here and how the same structure is used for the Creator and Eve and a different one is used for Adam (issha vs. issh), but it's unimportant.

Why is God referred to as the Father? It could be because Jesus was born into a patriarchal society in which it would have been much more realistic to frame the Divine in a masculine role. This could have also been why God Incarnate is a Man.

Whatever S/He is, God is no dummy.
 
cats7494 said:
Interesting argument, isn't it Bob?

Pretty much, yeah. Seeing how I always learned that God sent his Son to Earth in human form (thus implying that God himself was not human.

ETA: ** Note: "his" and "himself" used because I was too lazy to type "his/her" and "himself/herself")
 
Crankyshank said:
I believe God, as an entity and not a human, has both male and female aspects.

I agree, He is not human, so you really cannot assign a gender. I believe the entity of God is really something beyond our human understanding.
 
Crankyshank said:
Yes I have. Have you?
God is not human. How can something that is not human be assigned a sex? And if they are assigned a sex, why can't it be female? Because a misogynist says so? Still not understanding how assigning God a female gender is blasphemy.

I believe God, as an entity and not a human, has both male and female aspects.
Wow. OK, on that note, we have clearly reached the irrational, ridiculous stage of this debate, and I am out. Further arguing is pointless. It really is too bad that more Christians aren't decrying this line of thinking, though.
 
I believe the Almighty is probably Genderless. Not all of God's creations have a male/female assignment. Those reproductive organs may have evolved simply because it "worked" for larger multi-celled organisms. Snails, you know, are true hermaphrodites..no male or female, each snail is both male and female, yet they must mate to reproduce.
 


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