Thanks for all the opinions. Sorry took so long to get back.
As for some of the questions raised, there were no agents or lawyers involved. Sale was NOT contigent upon her selling her home. Up until the day before everything was in order and ready to go.
This is my understanding as well, that there does not have to be a specific contingency saying that the deposit is refundable if buyer can't sell her home, since there is already a contingency stating that the deposit is refundable if buyer can't get financing. A mortgage company would be quite unlikely to approve financing if buyer can't sell her other home. Therefore, buyer is unable to get financing, and therefore entitled to a refund. As rotten as this is for the OP.
They buyer has a certain number of days to get their financing. The blank is filled in by the buyer's agent.
If they let that date pass and they don't, in writing, let the seller know that their financing has fallen through, the remedies for default apply.
In the contract it states- "If a firm commitment for mortgage cannot be obtained within
20 calendar days from the date of Acceptance, at Sellers' option, (upon written notice) this agreement can be declared null and void and deposit shall be returned. If Purchaser is rejected for the mortgage, Purchaser shall furnish the Seller with the lenders' written verification of mortgage denial. Upon Seller's receipt of such denial this agreement shall become null and void and the deposit shall be returned to Purchaser"
So I take from that, since she
did obtain financing within the 20 calendar days and
did not furnish a notice of lenders' denial , then default would apply here?
I see what you are saying though regarding her mortgage being dependent upon the money from the sale of her home. That is the one thing that sticks out in my mind, and yet according to the wording of the contract, wouldn't she had to have notified me within 20 days?
This a common situation when selling a home. Wasn't it obvious that she was a contingent buyer? This is something that should have considered before you accepted her offer.
I would be willing to bet that 90% of people, unless they're first time home buyers, have to sell their current home in order to buy another one. And yet, 90% of real estate sales that take place don't include a contigency agreement with regards to this(unless you live in Texas apparently). Which to me is what the purpose of the deposit is, so sellers' have some assurance that buyers plan on purchasing the home. Like I said before, had she wanted to include a contingency aggreement on the sale of her home, I would've gone with the first buyer instead. She's trying to sell a $700,000+ home in this market. No way would I have waited for her to sell that.
Originally Posted by phorsenuf
You make some good points too as to why people should interview agents before deciding on one. Just because one may charge less commision isn't always a good choice.
Hiring an agent is no different, in my opinion, than shopping for insurance or finding a good lawyer.
But this is also a good example of why FSBO's can be risky.
If it was a FSBO - well, this is one reason right here why they're so iffy to get involved in. A good set of agents never would have let this slip by them
.
Not that I have anything against agents, most are very good at what they do, but I am curious at this point what could an agent have done differently? I don't think it's a matter of letting things slip on by. Our deal was not contignent on her home selling, so legally one had nothing to do with the other. I've used agents in the past and the only time they ever received any info regarding the buyers' current home sale is when our offer is contingent upon their home selling first.We don't have the laws about property contingencies like they do in Texas. I personally spoke with her mortgage officer ( a local office) and financing was all set. Again, not to be snippy, just wondering what I could've have done differently.
This whole thread I find very interesting, I'm curious to know more.
<sigh....I miss being in real estate>
How about this one...her deal fell through due to what may be fraud. At least it sounds like it may be. Her buyers' were both bank employees'. They sent an appraiser , one that I'm sure was well known to them being in the banking/mortgage industry. Evidently, the appraiser valued the home at $70,000 less than purchase price, which coincendentally was about the same amount less they had put in their original offer.
Of course, they start bringing up to the agent (yes both buyer and seller had agent's) that they think the home price should be lowered. Obviously the seller (my buyer) didn't agree with this and had an independent appraisal done, which came back correct to the purchase price.
Well, somehow this 2nd correct appraisal never made it's way to the underwriting dept of their bank, just the one valued at $70,000 less and underwriting would not approve the loan. Of course, this only was brought up the day before closing, when the buyers' are well aware that she has already purchased a home, packed up belongings, and is anxious to move, especially because her divorce is being held up by the sale of this home. I guess they figured she'd be so desperate to close that she'd accept $70,000 less. When my buyer told me about it, it all sounded rather fishy to me. A month later, neither party could agree and get this-She ended up keeping their deposit.
Yes, the buyer who is now demanding I give her back her deposit, kept her buyers' deposit!!