6_Time_Momma
<font color=blue>Still crazy after all these years
- Joined
- Mar 24, 2001
- Messages
- 3,968
Awhile back, there was a debate regarding a pharmacist who refused to fill a script for BC pills. Now, the pharmacist was within his right to refuse to fill them based on his beliefs. The problem came in, apparently, when he refused to refer her to another pharmacist or transfer the script.
Now, originally, I was in support of the pharmacist (in not filling the script, not about not transferring the script). However, I heard a radio talk show today that made me stop and think a bit more.
It was saying that there was a case where a pharmacist refused to fill a script for ritalin because he believed it was wrong to medicate children for that (whether he didn't believe ADHD was a real disorder or not, I'm not sure). Another case involved a pharm refusing to fill a script for viagra for a single man.
I guess I still feel they should have the right to refuse if they transfer or have another pharmacist to fill it, but at the same time, I can see where it could be headed. Someone refuses to fill a script for AZT as the person may have gotten AIDS from an "unapproved" lifestyle. SOmeone refuses to fill a script for Zovirax (herpes) for the same reason. What about meds for emphysema? I mean , they probably got that from smoking.
I can certainly see a big potential for problems. However, I also realize that, as a nurse, there may come a time where I am faced with doing something that would go against my beliefs, and I would still want the right to refuse to do that (and to have another nurse do it).
What do you think could/should be done, if anything, to ensure the pharmacist's right (based on moral/ethical/religious) grounds, but to prevent the potential of having meds not filled? Is it enough simply to make sure the script is transferred?
I don't know if this is really debate material or not, but it did get me thinking.
Now, originally, I was in support of the pharmacist (in not filling the script, not about not transferring the script). However, I heard a radio talk show today that made me stop and think a bit more.
It was saying that there was a case where a pharmacist refused to fill a script for ritalin because he believed it was wrong to medicate children for that (whether he didn't believe ADHD was a real disorder or not, I'm not sure). Another case involved a pharm refusing to fill a script for viagra for a single man.
I guess I still feel they should have the right to refuse if they transfer or have another pharmacist to fill it, but at the same time, I can see where it could be headed. Someone refuses to fill a script for AZT as the person may have gotten AIDS from an "unapproved" lifestyle. SOmeone refuses to fill a script for Zovirax (herpes) for the same reason. What about meds for emphysema? I mean , they probably got that from smoking.
I can certainly see a big potential for problems. However, I also realize that, as a nurse, there may come a time where I am faced with doing something that would go against my beliefs, and I would still want the right to refuse to do that (and to have another nurse do it).
What do you think could/should be done, if anything, to ensure the pharmacist's right (based on moral/ethical/religious) grounds, but to prevent the potential of having meds not filled? Is it enough simply to make sure the script is transferred?
I don't know if this is really debate material or not, but it did get me thinking.

