DonMacGregor
Sub Leader
- Joined
- May 13, 2021
- Messages
- 6,434
I think the argument proffered by some is that while the sale did close, a tort still exists in that the seller's failure to disclose the scheduled reservation has prohibited the buyer from enjoying use of the contract and the buyer has suffered potential financial harm. The failure to disclose serves as the nexus for the alleged tort.On what basis? The seller performed and the contract closed, didn't it?
As has been used as an example before, consider if you purchased an actual house and the sale closed, but the prior owner didn't disclose a longer escrow or delayed closing on their new home (maybe using proceeds from their sale to you to purchase their new home for example) and as a result, they are planning on staying in the old house for an additional month. You're now stuck trying to extend your apartment lease, and meanwhile, the local DA/sheriff is telling you it will take longer than the extra month to evict them anyway, so you may as well just wait it out.
*** And whether the seller told anyone else about the reservation or not is moot: they signed a sales contract that did not accurately represent the facts. They can't claim ignorance.
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