So this is what I continue to struggle to understand.
The OP bought a contract/points from the seller. I've seen no mention of a known pending reservation involving those points, therefore the buyer should receive ALL of the points contained within the contract. There can't be orphan points left behind.
The seller is supposed to provide the appropriate documentation to verify the status of the points, which should have shown a pending reservation, but apparently didn't. Which seems unlikely.
The seller and broker believed the reservation was made with points from the underlying contract, hence the addendum request for a closing "do-over". It sure seems as if the points for the reservation are part of the underlying contract purchased by the OP.
So the apparent resolution of DVC transferring the reservation (and points) into another contract held by the seller doesn't seem quite legit to me.
I could be totally misunderstanding this whole thing, but that's the way it reads to me.