zebsterama
DIS Veteran
- Joined
- Mar 8, 2008
- Messages
- 748
I'm sure someone else on this board has spun this angle (its probably happened at some point) but I figured I'd give it a shot. Apologies if this argument has already been made. 
I understand that the DVC POS states that essentially the act of being able to book other resorts/use a members points for non-guaranteed perks (like booking a cruise etc.) is something that DVC provides at their discretion.
I may be stretching it a bit here, but could someone sue (do you think someone would have a case) where a party feels that they are being penalized (i.e. they purchased or sold post 3/20 via resale) unfairly and unjustly (one could even say discriminated against) because DVC is unfairly using their perks (leverage of discretion) to decide who has access to those 'perks' vs. who doesn't.
Wait!
... Before you jump all over me, let me articulate further ....
On what grounds - other than because DVC just prefers people who have bought directly from DVC, and those that bought resale before 3/21/11 - does DVC justify offering perks to some of its lease holders and not others?
Could some kind of resulting lawsuit end up this way - where a judge says...
"OK DVC, you can offer 'perks' if you really want to outside of the contract (if you so choose), BUT you cannot arbitrarily pick and choose WHICH lease holders you give perks to and WHICH lease holders you leave out simply because some have bought directly, some have bought via resale before 3/21/11 and some bought after 3/20/11. That's discriminatory in nature.
DVC therefore your choices are to either:
a) start charging for such perks across the board
b) offer the same perks to everyone regardless of how they attained their contract/lease
c) offer no one lease holder special perks"
I hope that makes sense.
Im sure that the DVC lawyers have covered this off somehow but I was wondering if any of the legal beagles on the board have looked at this issue from this perspective.
Remember law is not a science it's an art!
Cheers,
Zebsterama



I understand that the DVC POS states that essentially the act of being able to book other resorts/use a members points for non-guaranteed perks (like booking a cruise etc.) is something that DVC provides at their discretion.
I may be stretching it a bit here, but could someone sue (do you think someone would have a case) where a party feels that they are being penalized (i.e. they purchased or sold post 3/20 via resale) unfairly and unjustly (one could even say discriminated against) because DVC is unfairly using their perks (leverage of discretion) to decide who has access to those 'perks' vs. who doesn't.
Wait!

On what grounds - other than because DVC just prefers people who have bought directly from DVC, and those that bought resale before 3/21/11 - does DVC justify offering perks to some of its lease holders and not others?
Could some kind of resulting lawsuit end up this way - where a judge says...
"OK DVC, you can offer 'perks' if you really want to outside of the contract (if you so choose), BUT you cannot arbitrarily pick and choose WHICH lease holders you give perks to and WHICH lease holders you leave out simply because some have bought directly, some have bought via resale before 3/21/11 and some bought after 3/20/11. That's discriminatory in nature.
DVC therefore your choices are to either:
a) start charging for such perks across the board
b) offer the same perks to everyone regardless of how they attained their contract/lease
c) offer no one lease holder special perks"
I hope that makes sense.
Im sure that the DVC lawyers have covered this off somehow but I was wondering if any of the legal beagles on the board have looked at this issue from this perspective.
Remember law is not a science it's an art!

Cheers,
Zebsterama

