One question I had though. Normally, if you are underwater on a home mortgage and a bank forecloses, they sell the house at auction, then you owe the difference between what you owe and what they got, is that correct?
DVC is sort of a different beast. If you financed directly through DVC, and they foreclosed, they would just take the contract, correct? However, DVC doesn't sell at a loss, they sell at full direct price. So how would the amount owed be determined?