I believe the intent of a killer is always taken into account when it comes to charges...In most states, Intent, malice aforethought and premeditation are taken in looked at whem deciding what to charge someone with . None of these things have anything to do with the *value* of the victim.
Lets say Mary Jane is killed
In the first scenario Mary jane is killed by Bill who hits her with his car. He wasn't drunk but he was maybe driving to fast..He won't be charged with murder...There was no intent or premedition..You may be able to argue that there was malice involed because he was speeding..He will probably be charged with some form of manslaugher
In the second scenario Mary Jane is killed by her boyfriend in a fit of rage..In most cases because there was no premedition he won't be charged with 1st degree murder,but he may be charged with 2nd degree as you can prove intent(to kill her) and malice
In the 3rd scenario MaryJane is a lesbian an Bills kills her because he hates gay people..Now if he went out looking for a gay person to kill you can probably charge him with 1st degree murder because there is premeditation,intent and malice...If he killed her in a fit of rage because he finds out she is gay he may get second degree murder because he had malice and intent, but not premeditition..
I believe that "hate crime" goes to the intent and malice portion of the charges...I don't believe it has anything to do with the value of Mary Jane .
I'm sure there are some lawyers here that can say how accurate I am