ROFR is such a huge issue. You go through a month or 2 and then have to start over... What I dont understand is I constantly see that the buyer is paying the MF's...am I crazy but shouldnt the seller ALWAYS pay the MF???? That would force the ROFR price higher to compensate and there for be much less likely to be ROFR'd. Example: if I bought 200 BWV at $50 and paid the MF's. The sale would be approx 200x50=10000 + 1000 in MF's. So the sale is 11,000. Thus, this sale could be ROFR by disney at $50. Why wouldnt we position the SAME sale as the seller paying the MF's and the sale being at $55 a point???? The seller would still walk away with same $10,000 ($11,000 sale - $1000 = $10,000) But it would be much less likely to be ROFR'd for $55 than at $50 you'd be vulnerable. What am I missing here???? Thanks!